If the Pope Is Infallible…..

If the Pope is so infallible in doctrine, how could they have fallen into the error such as Indulgences.

It was not the Pope who fell into the error.
Would the Catholic Church endorse such activities today?
It never did endorse those activities and still would condemn them today also.
Would not one error such as this invalidate all the rest of their pronouncements,
No b/c it was not the error of the Pope. We do not claim infallibility for anyone other than the Pope and all the bishops together in union with the Pope.for just as a prophet is known by what he says and whether it comes true — one instance of this not happening is sufficient to judge that he was not a true prophet. I think this same standard would have to be applied to the claims of the Pope and given the numerous failures in many of the Pope’s personal livesBut this standard pertained to the prophecy of a prophet. How do you jump from that to the personal behavior of the Pope?We do not believe that a pope is sinless or impeccable in his personal life. Just as Peter gave in to peer pressure in Galations. The behavior of the pope is not part of the definition of infallibility. The pope is only infallible when he does all of these: Teaches both To the Whole Church and only On Faith and Morals. Infalliblity is a protection of the purity of the faith for the whole Church. It is not for the exaltation or glory of the Pope.
He is not infallible when he teaches geometry. (not teaching faith and morals)
He is not infallible when he teaches on Faith and Morals walking down the hall at the Vatican. (not to the whole Church)

Peter was not proclaiming anything to the the whole Church in Galations. And the Pope did not even condone the abuse of selling indulgences let alone teach the abuse to the whole Church. So none of this calls into question the Dogma of the Infallibility of the Pope.
See my Post –>
Paul Rebuked Peter
Since the actual canonization of the Bible didn’t occur until about 400 years after Jesus, I think it is safe to say that the church fathers at that time felt all of the inspired words of God had been recorded.
Why do you think it is safe to say that?
We would say that John 21 indicates there was much more information but it could not all be written down. Jesus never said it must be written down. His choice for the repository of His teaching was faithful men..
John 21: 25 Jesus did many other things as well. If every one of them were written down, I suppose that even the whole world would not have room for the books that would be written.
This I believe is a statement to the effect that Scripture is the sole rule of faith and doctrine.
What statement? Where is this in Scripture?

SolaScriptura does not disallow other input, but surely judges it based on the Bible

Where does Scripture recommend this? And even to the point of disparaging the Church that Jesus founded?

What does Scripture say is the pillar and Foundation of Truth?

1 Timothy 3:15 if I am delayed, you will know how people ought to conduct themselves in God’s household, which is the church of the living God, the pillar and foundation of the truth.

Luther had to conclude the Catholic Church was not true to the Word of God,
Luther’s conclusion only applied to the abuse in one part of the Catholic Church, namely Germany. If Luther concluded that the whole Catholic Church was not true to the Word of God based on the abuse of indulgences then he made a very big jump to a wrong conclusion.
If he made this judgement about the teaching of the Catholic Church based on the corrupt behavior her ministers I would ask where in Scripture does it say to found another Church other than the one founded by Jesus Christ?
and as Peter himself said in Acts 4:19, “Judge for yourselves whether it is right in God’s sight to obey you rather than God.” Sure God still speaks to men today and gives guidance, but the Bible as it stands now is His final say and all future revelations must be judged based on it,
But what scripture supports this contention? All Public Revelation has been closed.
not on a man’s interpretations.
If you reject the interpretation of the Church founded by Christ, then whose interpretation can you trust to be infallible?
If the Bible does not allow unequivocally for a Pope, then no person writing almost two hundred years later making such claims should be sufficient to convince one of this position.Just because the earliest extant writing about the authority of the Pope is in the 2nd or 3rd century, does not mean that that is when the primacy of the papacy began. The Pope is a historical fact. It is how Christianity has always operated. I trust the historic and ancient Catholic Church much more than the relatively new Protestant religions born only 500 years ago at the oldest and 50 years ago for Calvary Chapels.
Historically there has always been a Pope. And this reality is evidenced by Sacred Scripture. We interpret these passages as evidence but Protestants based on prior theology interpret these verses differently. So, Scripture can be interpreted in more than one way but history settles the question.

Ask yourself this simple question, why this claim of Peter’s authority was not allowed in any other writings of the N/T?

On what do you base this claim that the authority of Peter was not allowed ? What if your contention that all religious truth is contained in Scripture is not true? After all, Scripture does not claim this for itself? Don’t you think that would have been pretty important to include?
I find it ironic that you reject the teachings of the Catholic Church because she teaches things that are not in scripture and yet you base this rejection on the doctrine of Sola Scriptura which also is not in Scripture.
Would the witnesses of these things have been so obtuse as to not show this as being true, even Peter himself. In fact, it actually shows just the opposite. This just doesn’t make sense. I think that in order to make these claims one would almost have to say that the Bible is in error to forget to record such an important detail, and I’m sure this is something the Catholic Church would not say.

Not at all. Everything is simply not in Scripture. It is the erroneous Protestant Doctrine of Sola Scriptura that insists that everything of importance must be in Scripture. This is nowhere to be found in Scripture.
The Faith was never meant to be derived from Scripture alone. No author of any book of the Bible would ever have dreamed of deriving The Faith from scripture alone b/c the Faith was strong and fertile and growing and spreading as they wrote. And scripture alone was not how this evangelization was accomplished.
The things which you have heard from me in the presence of many witnesses, entrust these to faithful men who will be able to teach others also.

Even, here we do not see St. Paul telling Timothy to write down anything but to entrust his teachings to faithful men.

2 Responses to If the Pope Is Infallible…..

  1. Constantine says:

    You wrote: It was not the Pope who fell into the error (of indulgences).

    Really? Pope Paul VI disagrees.

    For an exact understanding of this doctrine (of indulgences) and of its beneficial use it is necessary, however, to remember truths which the entire Church illumined by the Word of God has always believed and which the bishops, the successors of the Apostles, and first and foremost among them the Roman Pontiffs, the successors of Peter, have taught by means of pastoral practice as well as doctrinal documents throughout the course of centuries to this day. Indulgentiarum Doctrina 1967.

    According to the infallible pope, the church has “always believed” and the “first and foremost” promoters of indulgences were the “Roman Pontiffs…throughout the course of centuries to this day.”

    The popes didn’t “fall into error” – they formalized it.


  2. Fr. J. says:

    The Church does teach on indulgences. The error of indulgences was the sale thereof, not the practice itself.

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