Dogma of the Immaculate Conception


Jeronie: I appreciate your response. However, I have some comments as well.
First, the Bible prophesied that the Messiah shall come from the line of David,
which means Mary could have been a distant relative of David. Now take note that
David has once been an adulterer and murderer, in short he has sinned.
Therefore, if Mary came from the line of David then perhaps she too is a sinner
as we all have inherited the sins of our fathers.

BFHU And she certainly would have been a sinner if God had not saved her from inheriting the fallen human nature of Adam at her conception. It is only by this saving before sin and graces all through her life that she was able to live a sinless life. It was all by the power and grace of God and her cooperation with the graces she received.

Another thing is that the
dogma of “Immaculate Conception” was solemnized by Pope Pius IX on December 8,
1854. My question is, why was it declared that time only? Isn’t it too late to
declare such doctrine you suppose is so important to you? Where was that dogma
based?


It was not first invented at that time as many anti-Catholics want to claim. It was always believed as historical fact. It was solemnly declared to be dogma because the errors of the “Reformation” had begun to confuse the faithful to such an extent that the declaration needed to be clearly and finally proclaimed. Doctrine is not proclaimed dogmatically until confusion becomes widespread.

For instance, it has always been believed that marriage is between one man and one woman. We have no dogma on this but it is foreseeable that in the not too distant future we may need to make a dogmatic declaration of this doctrine because of the confusion our culture is injecting into the minds and hearts of the faithful. The date of that dogmatic declaration, if it becomes necessary, will not be the date it was first believed that marriage is between a man and a woman, but the date it was dogmatically defined. There is a big difference.

The Bible? I don’t think so. If Mary is sinless then she should have not
died a natural death,


The Church does not declare that Mary died only that God brought her to Heaven at the end of her earthly life. Mary may have died, in union and imitation of her divine son, despite the fact that she was not under the curse of death due to her sinlessness. Or, she skipped death and was assumed directly into Heaven b/c of her sinlessness.

again no where in the Scripture does it account that Mary
ascended to heaven like Jesus.

This is true but Scripture does not contain all the information of everything that happened at that time. See John 21 where the apostle clearly states this fact.

There are only two accounts in the Bible about
ascension, that of Jesus and Enoch.


You forgot Elijah. But the Church makes a distinction between Jesus and others. Only Jesus ascended into Heaven by His own power but Enoch, Elijah and Mary were “assumed” into Heaven by the power of God.

It is not a question of whether God will use a sinful woman or an immaculate one

True. He has used more sinful people than sinless people down through history.

but the question is if
God will use a sinner who is willing to bend to God’s will or a sinner who so much pride in his/her heart. Remember that God has used the greatest sinners in the history of the earth who were transformed by His saving grace.

Agreed.

Paul was a Christian persecutor but was used mightily by God for Evangelization. David was a murderer and an adulterer but he was called as the Bible says, “a man close to God’s own heart.

Very true. But let me say that it is our Tradition (teaching of the Apostles) that Mary was immaculate. It is your tradition that Mary sinned. But there is no Bible verse that explicitly says “Mary was a sinner or that she sinned.” It is merely your Protestant culture that has steeped you in the idea that Mary was a sinner. So, since neither of us has explicit scripture passages that clearly teach our view we need to see what Christians in the earliest days of the apostles and shortly thereafter believed. Catholics have believed in the immaculate conception for 2000 years. Protestants have believed Mary was a sinner for only 500 years. I would like to know upon what concrete authority Protestants dropped belief in the immaculate conception?—Even Luther believed it.

Other Post on the Immaculate Conception –>All Have Sinned and Immaculate Conception

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3 Responses to Dogma of the Immaculate Conception

  1. Father P says:

    One additional comment on Mary’s death.

    The dogma of the Immaculate Conception is very clear that Mary is preserved from the “stain” of original sin.

    Scholastic theology made a distinction between the stain of original sin and the consequences of original sin.

    The stain of original sin being separation from God and concupiscense (or a weakened will).

    The consequences of original sin — weakened intellect, weakened body, and death — are excluded from the definition.

    So the Immaculate Conception as defined by the Church does not necessarily lead to the conclusion that Mary never experienced sickness, age, or death

  2. […] Dogma of the Immaculate Conception « The Black Cordelias […]

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